Can someone please explain.....

[Mygdonia]

I need some guidance in order to understand a moral dilemma of this didactic purpose.

On one end of the spectrum we have the Greeks in Ottoman Makedonia. According to pan-slavist anthropologist there would not have been no more than 200,000 Greeks in all of Makedonia, yet, they had representation from Treaty of Berlin in 1878 to Treaty of Nuilly in 1919.

At the other end of the scale the same pan-slavist antropologist claim that "Macedonians" in Ottoman Makedonia numbered some 5 million. Yet had no representation in any, not one, international treaty, untill their inclusion into the United Nations.

Yet, they feverently claim that we occupy their land, how could this be? Surely they would have had ONE representative of at least ONE treaty during the Balkan wars?

Why have they not had any representation in any treaty at all, can someone explain this?

Whilst according to their claims, they outnumbered the Greeks by at least 10:1?

If so then how did the easily lose the Balkan war from a handful of Greeks?

So, they are pumping up the Greeks tyres...according their logic the vast minority annhialated the vast majority.

Or even more hysterical, the vast minority oppressed the vast majority.

[Truth Bearer]

Mygdonia religion played a huge role especially during the Macedonian struggle.These poor wretched souls the Slavs(The Bulgars) had no ethnic conscious and were the last of the christian balkanites to develop a nationalist concept of their own.

[Mygdonia]

I agree with you.
Isn't it strange these self declared Bulgars of 1919 Nuilly Treaty have the gall to claim lands on soil; meaning the expansionist maps were in full propaganda mode in 1945. Yet 20 years earlier they were self declared Bulgarians.

Still do not understand where they find the nerve to determine their natioanlist expansionist theories when 25 years earlier they claimed to be something else then what they are today?

[Truth Bearer]

Your guess is as good as mine mate...........Even the Bulgarian social clubs here in Australia before WWII where known as such yet during and after the war the changed to "Macedonian" clubs.

[Spartan]

Originally Posted by Mygdonia

I agree with you.
Isn't it strange these self declared Bulgars of 1919 Nuilly Treaty have the gall to claim lands on soil; meaning the expansionist maps were in full propaganda mode in 1945. Yet 20 years earlier they were self declared Bulgarians.

Still do not understand where they find the nerve to determine their natioanlist expansionist theories when 25 years earlier they claimed to be something else then what they are today?

It is simple, it all has to do with proving they BELONG to the land they occupy! Many peoples have been kicked out of land that they have only lived on for a short time, so in order to keep their land they have to create a history for themselves in order to show everyone they belong! This is the same with the Kosovar Albanians. The Serbs wanted the Albanians of Kosovo out of their historical land so they tried to oust them. So in return the Albanian kosovars created a history for themselves there.

[Istor]

I have set the same question repeatedly to SlavoSkopians. No answer of course!

And something similar:
At 1908 there was the "Young Turks" rebelion in Polis. After that a parliement was established for first in Turkey. There were representatives from ALL ethnic groups in Empire: Arabs, Turks, Greeks, Bulgarians, Vlachs, Jews, Albanians, Gypsies,.... But ques what! There were no "Macedonians" !!! Why? Didn't they make that famous Ilinden uprising?????

[Truth Bearer]

In the treaty of Berlin all the ethnic groups were given various rites not one group represented a "Macedonian" people.......

[preston]

Simply because there was never a Makedontsi conciousnes as the past few dacades want us (or better want them) to believe.
Macedonia was always a place of origin for a number of people.
The fact that they never had an organised representation on anything and at any time of history prooves that they never existed as a Nation. Since the begining of 1900s they became the victoms of Bulgarian and other Political interest and were used like prostitutes in lines to harm Greece. They still do that!

[Truth Bearer]

Why would they become victims of Bulgaria when they were Bulgarian????

[Petros Houhoulis]

Originally Posted by Mygdonia

I need some guidance in order to understand a moral dilemma of this didactic purpose.

On one end of the spectrum we have the Greeks in Ottoman Makedonia. According to pan-slavist anthropologist there would not have been no more than 200,000 Greeks in all of Makedonia, yet, they had representation from Treaty of Berlin in 1878 to Treaty of Nuilly in 1919.

At the other end of the scale the same pan-slavist antropologist claim that "Macedonians" in Ottoman Makedonia numbered some 5 million. Yet had no representation in any, not one, international treaty, untill their inclusion into the United Nations.

Yet, they feverently claim that we occupy their land, how could this be? Surely they would have had ONE representative of at least ONE treaty during the Balkan wars?

Why have they not had any representation in any treaty at all, can someone explain this?

Whilst according to their claims, they outnumbered the Greeks by at least 10:1?

If so then how did the easily lose the Balkan war from a handful of Greeks?

So, they are pumping up the Greeks tyres...according their logic the vast minority annhialated the vast majority.

Or even more hysterical, the vast minority oppressed the vast majority.

There is no reason to listen only to their more radical elements like Stefov. There are reasonable people in the other side of the fence who are capable to understand what happened. Listen to them carefully.

Hi