Euripides and Macedonians

[Ptolemy]

Found a good one in a site. Euripides lived many years and died in Macedonia. Many of his tragedies were written and played while he was in Macedonia. This would have been impossible, had the Macedonians been 'barbarians'. This is because in one of these tragedies, 'Iphigeneia in Aulis', the Greek
superiority over the barbarians is emphasized.

The following epigram in memory of Euripides which is attributed by some
authors to Thucydides may give us more light to the actual beliefs of the
people of that time (and possibly Thucydides)

"MNHMA MEN ELLAS APAS' EYRIPIDOU, OSTEA D' ISXEI GH MAKEDVN, H GAR DEJATO TERMA BIOU".

In brief, Macedonia, the land that holds the bones of Euripides is
considered part of Greece".

MIT classics is elightening on this subject, where Iphigenia is talking
to her mother Clytaemnestra (in Euripides' Iphigenia at Avlis):


IPHIGENIA: And it is but right, mother, that Hellenes should rule
barbarians, but not barbarians Hellenes, those being slaves, while these are free.


http://classics.mit.edu/Euripides/iphi_aul.pl.txt

What do we have here??? How could Euripides dare to say that Greeks should rule the barbarians, if Macedonians were barbarians?

and he presented his argument through his tragedy (Iphigenia at Avlis) in front of the Macedonian King Archelaos and the theater full of Macedonians.

So whats was going on?? Did Euripides had a death wish OR he was certain he was adressing Greeks????

Btw why did Euripides assumed that these Macedonians knew everything about the Trojan War, Iphigenia, Orestis and the like, as references to these abound in the text?

Why did he assume that the deities, their characteristics and actions were
understandable by the Macedonians?

The Answer is easy...Euripides knew Macedonians were Greeks!!!